What ails the following proof that all the elements of a finite set are equal?
The following is the “proof”;
All elements of a set with no elements are equal, so make the induction assumption that any set with n elements has all its elements equal. In a set with n elements, the first and the last n are equal by induction assumption. They overlap at n, so all are equal, completing the induction.
End of “proof:
Regards,
Nalin Pithwa
